Article: The NIV, NASB reject the Hebrew Texts by Will Kinney

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The NIV, NASB reject the Hebrew Texts


Part One - Genesis through Psalms

"Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminsh ought from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you." Deuteronomy 4:2.

"Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him. Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar." Proverbs 30:5,6.

"If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book; And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book." Revelation 22:18, 19.

The Old Testament scriptures, except for a few chapters of Aramaic, were written in Hebrew - not Greek or Syriac or Latin. The Lord Jesus Christ said in Matthew 5:18 "For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled." Jots and tittles refer to the Hebrew scriptures.

Likewise the apostle Paul states: "What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision? Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God." Romans 3:1,2.

The Hebrew Masoretic scribes were used of God to preserve His inspired words in the Old Testament. Of the Bible versions widely used today in the English language, only the King James Bible consistently sticks to the Hebrew text. The NKJV departs at least 10 times I have found so far, the NASB over 40 times and the NIV rejects the Hebrew Masoretic text well over 80 times, and most of these are openly admitted to in the footnotes of the NIV. The NASB departs from the Hebrew but they don't tell you when they do this in their footnotes.

This article will not list all the examples from the NIV, NASB, but enough to allow you to see what is happening to the Book we should all hold in reverence and treasure above any earthly possession.

“MEANINGLESS and PICKY DETAILS”?

The following short list is just a sampling of the divergent and confusing readings found among the contradictory modern bible versions. There are numerous other examples. Among these “details” are whether Jeremiah 27:1 reads Jehoiakim (Hebrew texts, RV, ASV, NKJV, KJB) or Zedekiah (NIV, NASB); whether 2 Samuel 21:8 reads Michal (Hebrew texts, KJB, NKJV, RV, ASV) or Merab (NIV, NASB), or 70 (NASB, NKJV, RV, ASV,KJB) being sent out by the Lord Jesus in Luke 10:1 or 72 (NIV), or the 7th day in Judges 14:15 (KJB, NKJV, RV, ASV) or the 4th day (NASB, NIV), or THREE bullocks in 1 Samuel 1:24 (JPS 1917, RV, ASV, Geneva, NKJV, Hebrew) or A three YEAR OLD bullock (NASB, RSV, NIV, ESV, LXX, Syriac), or God smiting 50,070 men in 1 Samuel 6:19 (KJB, RV,ASV,NASB) or 70 men slain (NIV, RSV), or there being 30,000 chariots in 1 Samuel 13:5 (KJB, NKJV, RV, ASV, NASB, ESV) or only 3000 (NIV, Holman), or 1 Samuel 13:1 reading - ONE/TWO years (NKJV, KJB, Geneva, Judaica Press Tanach), or 40/32 (NASB 1972-77) or 30/42 (NASB 1995, NIV), or _____years and.______and two years (RSV, ESV) or even “32 years old...reigned for 22 years” in the 1989 Revised English Bible!; 2 Samuel 15:7 “forty years” (Hebrew, Geneva, NKJV, NASB, RV) OR “four years” (NIV, RS, ESV, NET), or whether both 2 Samuel 23:18 and 1 Chronicles 11:20 read THREE (Hebrew texts, RV, ASV, NKJV, NIV, NET, Holman or THIRTY from the Syriac NASB, RSV, ESV), or 2 Samuel 24:13 reading SEVEN years (Hebrew, ASV, NASB, NKJV) or THREE years (LXX, NIV, RSV, ESV), or whether 1 Kings 5:11 reads 20 measures of pure oil (Hebrew texts, Geneva, KJB, ASV, RV, NASB, NRSV) or 20,000 (RSV, NIV, ESV, NET, LXX and Syriac), or in 2 Chronicles 31:16 we read THREE years old (Hebrew texts, Geneva Bible, Wycliffe, LXX, Syriac, [RV]], ASV, RSV, NRSV, ESV, NIV, NKJV, Holman, NET) or THIRTY years old (NASB - ft. Hebrew "three") or where 2 Chronicles 36:9 reads that Jehoiachin was 8 years old when he began to reign (Hebrew texts, NASB, NKJV, RV, ASV, KJB, ESV) or he was 18 years old (NIV).

Remember, God said that no man should add to or take away from His words.

Genesis 4:8 KJB "And Cain talked with Abel his brother: AND IT CAME TO PASS, when they were in the field, that Cain rose up against Abel his brother, and slew him."

NIV - "Now Cain said to his brother Abel, LET'S GO OUT TO THE FIELD. And while they were in the field, Cain atacked his brother Abel and killed him."

The NIV omits the verb "and it came to pass". In fact, the NIV complete concordance will tell you that they have "not translated" this verb a whopping 887 times. Not only does the NIV not translate this verb here but they also added "Let's go out to the field." The Holman Christian Standard also adds "Let's go out to the field". Their own footnotes say this reading comes from the Samaritan Pentateuch, the Septuagint (LXX - Greek), the Vulgate (Latin) and the Syriac but that the phrase is not found in the Hebrew Masoretic text.

This additional phrase is not found in the NASB, NKJV, RV, ASV, ESV or any Hebrew translation.

Other places in Genesis where the NIV departs from the Hebrew are Genesis 4:15; 10:23; 36:24; and 47:31 where instead of "bowed himself upon the bed's head" (KJB, NASB, NKJV, Holman), the NIV says "he leaned on the top of his staff." This reading comes from the LXX and not the Hebrew, and Jacob didn't lean on the top of his staff until after the events of the next chapter. See Hebrews 11:21.

Genesis 47:21 KJB "And as for the people, HE REMOVED THEM TO CITIES form one end of the borders of Egypt even to the other end thereof." This is also the reading of the NKJV, RV, ASV and NASB.

NIV - "And JOSEPH REDUCED THE PEOPLE TO SERVITUDE from one end of Egypt..." The NIV footnote says this comes from the Samaritan and the LXX, but that the Hebrew says: "he removed them to the cities".

The NIV also departs from the Hebrew in the following verses, though the NASB does not. Lev. 14:31; Numbers 24:17; 26:40; Deut. 23:18; 28:20; Joshua 15:4; 16:2; 18:18; 19:28, 34; Judges 8:8; and 9:29.

Exodus 3:19 "no, not by a mighty hand."

NASB, NIV, RSV, NRSV, ESV all depart from the Hebrew and change the meaning of Exodus 3:19.

In Exodus chapter three the LORD tells Moses what He is going to do to Pharoah and his land. In 3:19-20 we read in the King James Bible: "And I am sure that the king of Egypt will not let you go, NO, NOT BY A MIGHTY HAND. And I will stretch out MY HAND, and smite Egypt with ALL MY WONDERS which I will do in the midst thereof: AND AFTER THAT he will let you go."

The meaning is quite clear in the King James Bible for those who believe the Book and have eyes to see. God Himself is going to stretch out His mighty hand over Egypt and bring a series of 10 plagues upon the land, yet, in spite of the first nine plagues, God will harden the heart of Pharoah and he will refuse to let the people go. Only after the 10th and final plague of the death of the firsborn will God move upon Pharoah to let the people go. Even after that, God will again harden Pharoah's heart that he pursues after the children to Israel to bring them back, but they will be drowned in the Red sea.

In Exodus 7:4 and again in 9:3 and 15 we read concerning the series of plagues: "But Pharoah shall not hearken unto you, THAT I MAY LAY MY HAND UPON EGYPT, and bring forth mine armies, and my people the children of Israel, out of the land of Egypt BY GREAT JUDGMENTS."

Exodus 9:3 "Behold, THE HAND OF THE LORD is upon thy cattle which is in the field, upon the horses, upon the asses, upon the camels...there shall be a very grievous murrain."

Exodus 9:15 "For now I will stretch out MY HAND, that I may smite thee and thy people with pestilence"

The "mighty hand" spoken of in Exodus 3:19 is the hand of God Himself in the first nine plagues. God had raised up Pharoah "for to show in thee my power; and that my name may be declared throughout all the earth." (Exodus 9:16)

The Hebrew texts clearly say exactly what is written in the King James Bible. Not only does the KJB say: "And I am sure that the king of Egypt will not let you go, NO, NOT BY A MIGHTY HAND", but so also do the Bishop's Bible 1568, Webster's 1833 translation, the Revised Version, American Standard Version, NKJV, Darby, 1936 Hebrew Publishing Company's translation, Green's interlinear, KJV 21, and the Third Millenium Bible.

However we find that the NIV, NASB, RSV, NRSV, ESV, Holman Standard and an host of other versions reject the Hebrew reading and follow the Greek LXX and the Vulgate. You won't see this by consulting the NASB, NIV, but the RSV, NRSV, and ESV let us in on this little secret by saying so in their footnotes.

In the RSV, NRSV and ESV we read: "I know that the king of Egypt will not let you go UNLESS COMPELLED by a MIGHTY HAND"; then is a footnote these three versions tell us their reading comes from the LXX and the Vulgate, but that the Hebrew says "no, not by a mighty hand" - just as found in the King James Bible.

The NIV has no footnotes here but it says: "UNLESS a mighty hand COMPELS HIM" - at least they kept the "mighty hand" part.

But the NASB, vaunted so much for being so literal (what a joke), says: "will not let you go EXCEPT UNDER COMPULSION." - thus rejecting the Hebrew reading, following the Vulgate, and even paraphrasing this by omitting "mighty hand".

The translators of these versions apparently could not make sense of the passage, thought the Hebrew text was in error, and so followed something else according to their own understanding. As a result, they have changed the meaning of the passage.

The King James Bible is ALWAYS right.

Exodus 14:25 the LORD TOOK OFF their chariot wheels

Exodus chapter 14 relates the event of the children of Israel crossing the Red Sea when God divided the waters. The Egyptians pursued after them and were drowned in the sea.

In Exodus 14: 24-25 we read: "And it came to pass, that in the morning watch the LORD looked unto the host of the Egyptians through the pillar of fire and of the cloud, and troubled the host of the Egyptians, And TOOK OFF their chariot wheels, that they drave them heavily."

"TOOK OFF their chariot wheels" is the reading of Tyndale 1530, Coverdale 1535 (smote the wheels from their chariots), Bishops' Bible 1568, the Geneva Bible 1599, the King James Holy Bible 1611, Rotherham's Emphasized bible 1902, the NKJV 1982, the Revised Version 1881, the ASV of 1901 (the predecessor of the NASB), the KJV 21, Third Millenium Bible, Hebrew Names Bible, World English Bible, the two Jewish translations of 1917 and 1936, Darby, the Living Bible and 1998 New Living Bible, Green's interlinear, MKJV, the NIV and the Spanish versions - quitó las ruedas.

However the "scholarly" NASB tells us : "He caused their chariot wheels TO SWERVE". This is also the reading of the brand new 2004 Holman Christian Standard version.

Now I've had the unpleasant experience of having my car wheels swerve on ice or snow, but thankfully I have never had them come off yet. You have to admit there is a difference between the Lord taking off their wheels and the Lord causing them to swerve.

The word used here is # 5493 soor and it means to remove or take away. It is used in Exodus 8:8 "take away the frogs"; in 8:31 "he removed the swarms of flies", in 34:34 Moses took off the vail", Genesis 41:42 "Pharoah took off his ring" and in Genesis 8:13 "Noah removed the covering of the ark".

Besides the confusion of the NASB and Holman Standard, let's see how some other modern versions clarify this passage for us.

The 1950 Catholic Douay version says God OVERTHREW the wheels; but the more recent Catholic versions say God was "clogging" the wheels.

The RSV 1952, NRSV, ESV 2002, New English Bible 1970 and The Message all say God was "CLOGGING the wheels", with a footnote that tells us this reading (clogging) comes from the Septuagint, Samaritan Pentateuch and Syriac; but that the Hebrew text reads "took off" or "removed". Actually, the Greek version called the Septuagint doesn't say "clogging", as we shall soon see.

The Bible in Basic English of 1965 says God "made the wheels STIFF"

The New Century Version tells us God "kept the wheels from turning".

Young's "literal" (hah) says: "and turneth aside the wheels of their chariots." This would mean they swerved, but not that they actually came off.

Lamsa's 1936 translation of the Syriac Peshitta reads: "clogging the wheels" (from the Syriac we get the reading found in the Message, RSV, NRSV and ESV)

Today's English Version 1992 "He made the wheels get stuck"

And the famed Greek Septuagint says God "bound the axel-trees of their chariots"; it doesn't say "clogging the wheels" as the false footnotes of the RSV, ESV tell us.

So when you read glowing recommendations about the next Bible of the Month Club version coming out that is based on better manuscripts and greater advances in scholarship, just realize it is a lot of pious sounding baloney. None of these people believe any Bible or any text is the inspired words of God, and all their efforts are designed to overthrow the time tested, inerrant, God approved King James Holy Bible.

In Deuteronomy 11:14, and 15 the Hebrew texts have Moses speaking for God who says: "That "I" will give you the rain of your land in his due season...And "I" will send grass in thy fields..." This is the reading of even the NIV, TNIV, New English Bible 1970, as well as the Holman Standard, the NKJV, RV, ASV, and the Jewish translations of 1917, 1936, the Judaica Press Complete Tanach and the Complete Jewish Bible. It is also the reading found in the Geneva Bible, Bishops' Bible, Coverdale, the Hebrew Names Version, World English Bible, New English Bible, the Spanish Reina Valera, French Louis Segond, the Portuguese Almeida, and the Modern Greek O.T. (not to be confused with the so called LXX). The NASB at least up until the 1972 edition also read "I" will give rain.."I" will send grass...But in the 1977, and again in the 1995 edition the NASB editors decided to reject the clear Hebrew reading and they now follow the RSV, NRSV, and the 2003 ESV which read: "HE will give rain...HE will send grass..." The RSV, ESV tell us that the reading of "He" comes from the Samaritan Pentateuch, LXX, and the Vulgate, but that the Hebrew reads "I", and not "he".

Deuteronomy 26:3 - "...I profess this day unto the LORD THY God, that I am come unto the country, which the LORD sware unto our fathers for to give us." Here all Hebrew texts as well as the RV, ASV, NKJV, NIV, RSV, NRSV, ESV and Holman read either THY God, or YOUR God (which mean the same thing), but only the NASB follows the Greek Septuagint version and says: "unto the Lord MY God..." The footnotes in versions like Holman, ESV tell us this. Even the online NASB footnotes that the reading of "MY God" comes from the LXX, but that the Hebrew reads "your God". Daniel Wallace's ridiculous NET version goes with "your" God in his text, but then he gives us this silly footnote saying: "For the MT reading “your God,” certain LXX mss have “my God,” a contextually superior rendition followed by some English versions (e.g., NAB, NASB, TEV)." How can this be a "contextually superior rendition" when clearly the context of the verse itself is what the man bringing the offering says unto the priest? "...go unto the priest...and say unto him, I profess unto the LORD THY God...." And if it is a "contextually superior rendition" according to Dr. Wallace, then why didn't he himself follow it? Scholars are a funny bunch, No? Wait till you see what Dr. Wallace says about the next one.

In Deuteronomy 28:20 we read: "The LORD shall send upon thee cursing, vexation, and rebuke ...because of the wickedness of thy doings, whereby thou hast forsaken ME." The word "me" is the reading of the ASV, NASB, RSV, NRSV, ESV, NKJV, Holman and the Jewish translations. However the NIV and the TNIV say: "...because of the evil you have done in forsaking HIM." Then in a footnote the NIV and TNIV tell us the Hebrew reads ME. Daniel Wallace's NET version reads HIM but he footnotes: "For the MT first person common singular suffix (“me”), the LXX reads either “Lord” (Lucian) or third person masculine singular suffix (“him”; various codices). The MT’s more difficult reading probably represents the original text." However the copy of the LXX I have in front of me actually says ME, just like the Hebrew. Apparently there are at least THREE different LXX readings, and the NIV editors went with one of the three LXX readings and rejected the Hebrew text.

The NIV, Holman CSB, ESV and NASB change the Hebrew in Judges 14:15 where the KJB, RV, ASV, Youngs, the Jewish translations and many others correctly say "ON THE SEVENTH DAY". Here the NIV, NASB, ESV, Holman CSB all say "ON THE FOURTH DAY", which the NIV tells us comes from SOME LXX and the Syriac, but the Hebrew says "on the 7th day". There is a riddle within a riddle here and the NASB, NIV Bible Correctors couldn't solve it and they still end up with a contradiction. For a complete study on this apparent contradiction, see my article at: http://brandplucked.webs.com/jud1415samsonsriddle.htm

Judges 16:13 Here the NASB, ESV and NIV add an additional 35 words to the Hebrew text. Agreeing with the KJB are the Jewish translations, the RV, ASV, NKJV, Darby, Young's and many others. There is no Hebrew text that contains these extra words. The NASB, NIV , Holman, ESV all add "and tighten it with the pin, I'll become as weak as any other man. So while he was sleeping, Delilah took the seven braids of his head, wove them into the fabric". The NIV footnote tells us these 35 extra words come from SOME Septuagint manuscripts.

For a much fuller examination and explanation of this passage where versions like the NASB, NIV, ESV, and Daniel Wallace's goofy NET version add these extra words to the Hebrew Scriptures, see my article on the book of Judges here: http://brandplucked.webs.com/bookofjudges.htm

Judges 18:30 "and Jonathan, the son of Gershom, the son of MANASSEH, he and his sons were priests to the tribe of Dan until the day of the captivity of the land." MANASSEH is the reading found in the Hebrew texts as well as my copy of the LXX. So too read even the NASB and NKJV. However versions like the NIV, ESV, Holman Standard reject the clear Hebrew reading and say MOSES instead of Manasseh. Again, you can see my article on Judges for further information on this verse - http://brandplucked.webs.com/bookofjudges.htm

1 Samuel 1:24 "with three bullocks" KJB, RV, ASV, NKJV, and the Hebrew texts, is changed in the NIV, Holman, ESV, NASB to "a three year old bull" from the LXX and Syriac.

1 Samuel 6:19 "he smote of the people 50,070 men." This is the Hebrew reading and also the RV, ASV, NASB. However the NIV, ESV say "putting 70 of them to death." The NIV is only off by 50,000. Is that close enough?

The Holman CSB is different from them all in that it says: "He struck down 70 men out of 50,000 men."

The NIV also changes the Hebrew in 1 Samuel 12:11; 13:5; 20:24; 25:1, 22; 2 Samuel 5:25; 6:5; 7: 16 "before thee" to "before me" (NASB too); 7: 23; 8:4, 8, 13; 9:11 (NASB too); 13:39; 14:4; 15:7, 8; 17:28; 23:8, 36; 24:2, 13. The NASB agrees with the Hebrew and the KJB in all of these verses except the two mentioned.

1 Sam 8:16 KJB - "And he will take your menservants, and your maidservants, and your goodliest YOUNG MEN, and your asses, and put them to his work."

YOUNG MEN is the reading of the Hebrew, the NASB, RV, ASV, NKJV, Holman CSB, and the new revision of the RSV called the English Standard Version of 2001.

1 Sam 8:16 NIV - "Your menservants and maidservants and the best of your CATTLE and donkeys he will take for his own use." Then in a footnote they tell us "cattle" comes from the LXX, but that the Hebrew says "young men".

1 Samuel 13:1 KJB, NKJV, Douay, Geneva, Lamsa, Webster's, Third Millenium Bible, KJV 21, Young's, Spanish Reina Valera and Italian Diodati all agree. "Saul reigned ONE YEAR: and when he had reigned TWO YEARS over Israel, Saul chose him 3,000 men..."

However the NASB of 1977 says "Saul was 40 years old when he began to reign and he reigned 32 years over Israel", while the NIV, Holman CSB say "Saul was 30 years old...and he reigned 42 years over Israel." There is no text anywhere that says either of these.

In 2 Samuel 7:16 the NIV, Holman CSB and NASB change the Hebrew "before THEE" (RV, ASV, NKJV) to "before ME", according to the LXX, but the Hebrew says "thee".

2 Samuel 13:34 again the NIV, RSV, NRSV add 21 extra words to the text which come from the so called Greek LXX. These are not included in the 2003 Holman nor the NASB, nor even in the revision of the old RSV, NRSV called the ESV (English Standard Version 2001). You see, these modern scholars can't even agree among themselves as to what God wrote or didn't. The NIV adds this sentence which is not found in any Hebrew manuscript. "The watchman went and told the king, I see men in the direction of Horonaim, on the side of the hill." So, is it inspired Scripture or not?

In 2 Samuel 21:8 the NIV, Holman and NASB change "MICHAL the daughter of Saul", which is the Hebrew reading, to MERAB, which comes from 2 manuscripts and SOME LXX. My copy of the LXX, as well as the Jewish translations, the RV, ASV, Spanish, Geneva and NKJV all correctly read "Michal".

In 2 Samuel 23:18 and 19 the NASB follows the RSV and the Syriac in changing "Adriel...was chief among THREE" to "chief among THIRTY", but here even the NIV and Holman stick with the Hebrew and the RV, ASV and NKJV.

In 2 Samuel 24:2 we read: "For the king said to Joab THE CAPTAIN OF THE HOST, which was with him, Go now through all the tribes of Israel, from Dan even to Beersheba, and number ye the people, that I may know the number of the people."

So read the Hebrew texts, the RV, ASV, NASB, NKJV, NET, Darby, Youngs, the Holman Standard, Lamsa and even the ESV. However the NIV adds words taken from the LXX and rejects the Hebrew reading. The NIV, along with the RSV, NRSV and the Message, says: "So the king said to Joab AND THE ARMY COMMANDERS WITH HIM (F89), "Go throughout the tribes of Israel from Dan to Beersheba and enroll the fighting men, so that I may know how many there are." Then it footnotes: "Septuagint; Hebrew - Joab the army commander"

Notice that the RSV and NRSV added these extra words from the LXX, but then the lastest revision of these three - the 2001 ESV - went back to the original Hebrew reading. Such are the ever changing ways of the "science" of textual criticism.

Again, in 2 Samuel 24:13 we read: "So Gad came to David, and told him, and said unto him, Shall SEVEN years of famine come unto thee in thy land?"... So read the Hebrew texts as well as the Geneva Bible, the RV, ASV, NASB, NKJV, Darby, Youngs, the Jewish translations, Douay, the Spanish Reina Valera and the Italian Diodati. However, versions like the NIV, RSV, NRSV and the ESV read: "THREE years of famine" and then tell us in a footnote that "three years" comes from the Greek Septuagint, but that the Hebrew texts read "seven years".

There is a very reasonable and biblical way of explaining this apparent contradiction once we read all that the true Bible says regarding the events recorded in Scripture. You can see it here: http://brandplucked.webs.com/7or3yearsoffamine.htm


In 1 Kings the NIV changes the Hebrew text in 5:11 from 20 to 20,000; and changes 6:8;(NASB too); 7:18 twice, though the NASB equals the KJB, and in 12:18.

In 1 Kings 9:8 the NASB goes along with the RSV, NRSV and ESV and follows the Syriac and Old Latin, while rejecting the Hebrew reading. There we read: "And this house WHICH IS HIGH, every one that passeth by it shall be astonished, and shall hiss..."

This is the reading of even the NIV, Holman CSB, NKJV, ASV, RV, 1917 and 1936 Jewish translations. The NASB doesn't tell you when they reject the Hebrew, but the RSV, which reads as the NASB, tells us "will become a heap of ruins" comes from the Syriac and Old Latin, but the Hebrew reads "high".

2 Kings 17:27 - Here is an interesting verse in that so many Bible versions actually depart from the Hebrew text and yet I have seen some modern version promoters actually trying to tell us on the forums that the King James Bible is wrong and their modern versions that reject the Hebrew text are right! If they would just think things through, they would realize that the KJB and the Hebrew text are right. But NO. Rather than accepting a very reasonable explanation as to why the KJB and Hebrew are correct, they prefer to accuse them of error. Such are the ways of those who have no Final Written Authority -The Inspired Holy Bible - and instead place their own minds and understanding as their final authority.

In 2 Kings the Lord Himself sent lions among the people who now lived in Samaria because they continued to worship idols and feared not the Lord God of Israel. So the king of Assyria came up with a plan to teach the people about the God of Israel. In 2 Kings 17:27 we read: “Then the king of Assyria commanded, saying, Carry thither one of the priests whom ye brought from thence; and let THEM go and dwell there, and let HIM teach them the manner of the God of the land.”

Agreeing with the Hebrew text in reading the plural as “let THEM go and dwell there” are the Jewish translations of JPS 1917, the 1936 Hebrew Publishing Company version, the Judaica Press Tanach, the Revised Version 1881, American Standard Version 1901, Darby, Young’s, the Spanish Reina Valera 1909, Rotherham’s Emphasized Bible 1902, World English Bible, Hebrew Names Version, and the KJV 21st Century version 1994.

There are many versions like the RSV, NRSV, ESV which change the Hebrew text here and tell us so in their own footnotes. These versions read: “Carry thither one of the priests whom ye brought from thence; and let HIM go and dwell there...” Then in a footnote they all tell us that the reading of HIM comes from the Syriac and the Vulgate, but the Hebrew reads THEM.

Not surprisingly, Daniel “scribal error” Wallace’s NET version also adopts this bogus reading and he defends it by telling us in his footnote: “Hebrew “and let THEM go and let THEM live there, and let HIM teach them the requirements of the God of the land.” The two plural verbs seem inconsistent with the preceding and following contexts, where only one priest is sent back to Samaria. The singular has the support of Greek, Syriac, and Latin witnesses.”

Did it ever occur to “scholars” like Daniel Wallace et.al. that the priests themselves were married men with wives and children and that they would take their family members with them when they went to live in another country, and so the priest and his family went to Samaria and he would teach the people about the God of the land, and thus we have “let THEM go and dwell there, and let HIM teach them...”???

Not only do the RSV, NRSV and ESV wrongly read HIM instead of THEM, but so do the NKJV, NASB, the Geneva Bible, Bishops’, Coverdale, and the Holman Standard.

The NIV gets around the “problem” by just omitting the Hebrew word altogether and says: "Have one of the priests you took captive from Samaria go back to live there and teach the people what the god of the land requires."

The King James Bible is right, as always.

In 1 Chronicles the NIV rejects the Hebrew in 1:4, 17; 4:3 changes "father" to "son" along with the NKJV, NASB though the Hebrew translations, RV, ASV, Young, Darby and others read as does the KJB with "were of the father of Etam". 4:33; 6:25, 27, 28, 59, 77; 8:29, 30; 16:15; 25:9; 26:20 (NASB too), 2 Chronicles 15:8 both NIV and NASB add "Azariah son of" from the Syriac and the Vulgate; 20: 1,2, and in 20:25 both the NIV, NASB change "dead bodies" to "clothing"; 22:2 both NIV, NASB change 42 to 22 on basis of some LXX, but the Hebrew says 42; and in 36:9 the NIV changes 8 to 18 but the NASB retains "eight" years old, according to the Hebrew.

One example of many:

1 Chronicles 16:15 and 19. “BE YE MINDFUL always of his covenant; the word which he commanded to a thousand generations (v. 15)....when YE were but a few, even a few, and strangers in it.”

The modern versions present us with their typical array of confusion and mutual disagreement in these two places - “BE YE MINDFUL” (v. 15) and “when YE were but a few” (v. 19.)

The Hebrew texts clearly read as does the King James Bible, but the NIV has chosen to reject the Hebrew texts and instead follow SOME Greek Septuagint versions in these two places.

Agreeing with “BE YE MINDFUL” or, as some modern versions have it “Remember” (which means the same thing) and “when YE were but a few” are the Hebrew versions of JPS 1917, the 1936 Hebrew Publishing Company version, the Judaica Press Tanach, the Complete Jewish Bible and the Hebrew Names Version.

Also agreeing with both Hebrew texts - “Be ye mindful” and “when YE were but a few” are the Geneva Bible 1599, the Revised Version 1881, the ASV 1901, Youngs, Darby, Webster’s, Rotherham’s Emphasized Bible 1902, Lamsa’s 1936 translation of the Syriac Peshitta, the NKJV 1982, Green’s interlinear, the KJV 21st Century Version 1994, Third Millenium Bible 1998, and the 2001 revision of the revision of the revision called the ESV (English Standard Version.) The RSV has it one way, the NRSV another and the ESV yet another. These guys are nothing if not consistently inconsistent.

Also agreeing with the Hebrew reading of “BE YE MINDFUL” (or Remember) are the NRSV 1989, NASB 1963-1995, Douay, Wycliffe, Coverdale, Bishops’ Bible, Holman Standard 2003 and Daniel Wallace’s NET version.

However all of these versions, both old and new - Wycliffe, Coverdale, Bishops’ bible, the NASB, Holman, NRSV and Wallace’s NET version - then proceed to reject the Hebrew text in verse 19, where instead of reading “When YE were but few”, all these versions incorrectly read “when THEY were but few in number.”

The NIV, RSV and TNIV reject both Hebrew readings and in verse 15 instead of saying “Be ye mindful always of his covenant” they say: “HE REMEMBERS his covenant forever”. Then they tell us in their footnotes that these readings comes from “SOME Septuagint manuscripts, but the Hebrew reads ‘Remember’.” and “when you were few”. Not all ‘Septuagint’ versions are the same. The copy of the Septuagint that is the most common says “LET US REMEMBER forever his covenant” and not “He remembers his covenant”.

Likewise the foreign language bible versions are a hodgepodge of conflicting readings. Agreeing with the Hebrew texts and the King James Bible are the Spanish Reina Valera of 1902 and the Sagradas Escrituras 1569 - “Haced memoria de su alianza perpetuamente” and “Cuando erais pocos en número, Pocos y peregrinos en ella.” However the newer Reina Valera versions have rejected the Hebrew texts, and both the 1960 and 1995 versions read like the NIV with: “El hace memoria de su pacto perpetuamente” and “Cuando ellos eran pocos en número”.

The Italian Diodati 1649 and the Italian Nuova Diodate 1991 agree with the Hebrew and the KJB saying - “Ricordatevi sempre del suo patto” and “quando non eravate che un piccolo numero”

The French Martin 1744 and the 1996 French Ostervald both read the same as the Hebrew and the King James Bible. The 1999 French version called La Bible du Semeur, put of by the same people who gave us the NIV, the International Bible Society, does follow the Hebrew texts and agrees with the King James Bible. It says “Souvenez-vous pour toujours de son alliance” and “Vous n'étiez alors qu'un très petit...” So the French NIV differs from the English NIV.

The Modern Greek translation (not to be confused with the so called Greek Septuagints) also reads “Remember his covenant always” and “when you were but a few”.

The King James Bible is right - as always.

2 Chronicles 15:8 "And when Asa heard these words, AND the prophecy OF OBED the prophet, he took courage and put away the abominable idols..."

So read the Hebrew texts and the Jewish translations of 1917, 1936, modern Complete Jewish Bible, the Judaica Press Tanach, Hebrew Names Bible, the Geneva Bible 1599, Revised Version 1881, American Standard Version 1901, Darby, Young's, Rotherham's Emphasized Bible 1902, the NKJV and even Wallace's NET version.

However in modern times beginning with the liberal RSV, many bible versions add words to the Hebrew text on the belief that the Hebrew text has been corrupted. These include the NRSV, ESV, NASB, NIV, TNIV and the Message. These versions add the words "Azariah the son" to the inspired text.

Jamieson, Faucett and Brown give this faith destroying comment: "when Asa heard . . . the prophecy of Oded the prophet--The insertion of these words, "of Oded the prophet," is generally regarded as a corruption of the text. "The sole remedy is to erase them. They are, probably, the remains of a note, which crept in from the margin into the text" [BERTHEAU]."

This is an interesting comment from these men who do not believe that any Bible or any text is free from corruption. They suggest that we merely "erase" these words from the divine text, but yet none of the other multiple bible version translators have followed their advice. Instead the versions like the NASB, RSV, ESV, NIV and Holman have ADDED the words "which Azaraiah the son" of Obed to the text, allegedly from the Syriac and Latin Vulgate.

The NIV says "the prophecy of AZARIAH SON of Obed the prophet" and then tells us in a footnote: "Vulgate and Syriac; Hebrew does not have 'Azariah son of'.

Furthermore, the Syriac translation done by Lamsa reads: "the prophecy of Azariah the son of Azor" and not Obed. Then the conflicting Septuagint versions are again in disarray. The LXX copy I have does not add the name of Azariah to the text but says: "the prophecy of AZOR", but then footnotes that the Alexandrian Septuagint reads: "the prophecy of Azariah" and both omit the name Obed altogether. So we see that these other "ancient versions" are in complete disagreement among themselves and the footnotes in versions like the NIV are a misleading lie.

Another note of interest as to why it is the King James Bible and not the previous English versions that is the perfect words of God is that Wycliffe 1395, Coverdale 1535 and the Bishops's Bible of 1568 all contain this added false reading of "the prophecy OF AZARIAH THE SON of Obed" to the Hebrew text.

There are two possible explantions I am aware of for believing that God got it right after all, and that His words have not been corrupted or lost over time, but have been faithfully preserved in the Hebrew texts and more specifically in the King James Bible. One explanation is that the prophet Azariah is called by the name of his father Obed. This is possible. However I personally lean towards the other explanation that not only did king Asa hear the words of Azariah but that he ALSO was told at this time about a previous prophecy given by Azariah's father Obed.

Notice carefully the words recorded in the King James Bible in 2 Chronicles 15:8: "And when Asa heard these words, AND the prophecy OF OBED the prophet, he took courage and put away the abominable idols..."

The King James Bible is correct and translators who put together versions like the NASB, NIV, ESV, and Holman are guilty of adding to the words of God and not believing in an infallible Bible.

Modern Bible translators do not believe in the preservation of the inspired Scriptures. There are many examples of where modern versions like the NASB, NIV, RSV, ESV and Holman often reject the clear Hebrew readings and either follow some other source, or just INVENT or make up a reading on a whim. Yet they continually disagree among themselves as to when they do this.

2 Chronicles 20:1 KJB - “It came to pass after this also, that the children of Moab, and the children of Ammon, and with them other BESIDE THE AMMONITES, came against Jehoshaphat to battle.”

These “other beside the Ammonites” would include “those of mount Seir” later mentioned in verses 10 and 22.


THE AMMONITES is the reading found in the KJB, the Jewish translations of the JPS 1917, Judaica Press Tanach, the Complete Jewish Bible, the RV, ASV, NKJV, the Geneva bible, the Bishops’ Bible and the Spanish Reina Valera.


However the NIV says: “After this, the Moabites and Ammonites with SOME OF THE MEUNITES came to make war on Jehoshaphat.” Then it footnotes that this reading comes from “SOME Septuagint copies, but the Hebrew reads Ammonites”. Not only does the NIV reject the Hebrew text in this place but so do the RSV, NRSV, ESV, NET, NASB and the Holman Standard. Wallace’s NET version also follows the non-Hebrew reading “Meunites” but then he footnotes: “The Hebrew text has “Ammonites,”...Most translations, following some mss of the LXX, read “Meunites” so NASB, NIV, NRSV.”


By the way, Lamsa’s translation of the Syriac has a completely different reading than either the Hebrew texts or “some” LXXs. In stead of “and with them beside the Ammonites” it reads “with the mighty men of war”.


In the very next verse, 2 Chronicles 20:2 we read in the KJB - “There cometh a great multitude against thee from beyond the sea on this side SYRIA ; and behold, they be in Hazazontamar, which is Engedi.”


SYRIA (or Aram, which is the same) is the reading found in the Jewish translations of JPS 1917, 1936 Hebrew Pub. Com., the Judaica Press Tanach, Wycliffe 1395, Bishops’ Bible, Rotherham’s Emphasized bible 1902, the Douay-Rheims, the Revised Version, the American Standard Version, the NKJV, Third Millenium Bible, Green’s literal, Darby, and even the Greek Septuagint - Siria.


However beginning with the liberal RSV and followed by the NRSV, ESV, NIV, NASB, NET, Holman Standard and the Message, these modern versions have rejected the Hebrew reading of Syria (or Aram) and read EDOM instead. Then versions like the NIV, NRSV, and NET footnote that EDOM comes from ONE Hebrew manuscript, but that the Hebrew Masoretic texts read Syria or Aram. Even the LXX agrees with the KJB here. Once again the Syriac is corrupt and has a completely different reading than either the Hebrew or the LXX. Instead of “on this side Syria” it actually says: “and behold, they are encamping in Jericho”!!!


Then again in 2 Chronicles 20:25 we read: “And when Jehoshaphat and his people came to take away the spoil of them, they found among them in abundance both riches WITH THE DEAD BODIES, and precious jewels, which they stripped off for themselves, more than they could carry away: and they were three days in gathering of the spoil, it was so much. “


The context is really quite simple. When the children of Israel cried out to the Lord, God Himself set these enemies against one another and they killed each other. Verse 24 reads: “And when Judah came toward the watch tower in the wilderness, they looked unto the multitude, and, behold, THEY WERE DEAD BODIES FALLEN TO THE EARTH, and none escaped.”


Not only does the King James Bible read “with the DEAD BODIES” (or corpses) but so also do the Jewish Scriptures (1917, 1936, Judaica Press Tanach) the RV, ASV, NKJV, Green’s, Spanish Reina Valera, Darby, Youngs, the Geneva bible and this time even the Holman Standard version. The Geneva Bible says: “they founde among them in abundance both of substance and also of bodies laden with precious iewels, which they tooke for themselues.” This time even Lamsa’s translation of the Syriac agrees with the Hebrew texts and the KJB saying “and behold they were DEAD BODIES fallen to the earth”.


The NKJV also reads “dead bodies” but then it casts doubt on the Hebrew reading by footnoting “ A few Hebrew manuscripts, Old Latin, and Vulgate read garments; Septuagint reads armor.” Well, for one thing they are lying about what the Septuagint reads. Instead of “dead bodies” or even “armor”, my copy of the so called LXX reads: “they found much CATTLE and FURNITURE, and spoils and precious things.”


The NIV, NASB, RSV, NRSV, ESV and NET versions all reject this Hebrew reading of “dead bodies” and instead say: “his people came to take their spoil, they found much among them, including goods, GARMENTS (NASB) CLOTHING (NIV) and valuable things.” Then the NIV tells us that this reading comes from “Some Hebrew manuscripts and Vulgate; most Hebrew manuscripts corpses.”


Another Bible corrector, Daniel Wallace, also reads in his NET version “clothing” instead of “dead bodies”, and he footnotes: “The MT reads “corpses”, but this seems odd among a list of plunder. A few medieval Hebrew mss and the Vulgate read “clothing”, which fits the context much better.”


Sorry Dan, but the context is just fine as it stands in the traditional Hebrew texts and the KJB.

2 Chronicles 26:5 - “And he sought God in the days of Zechariah, who had understanding in THE VISIONS of God: and as long as he sought the LORD, God made him to prosper.”

The VISIONS of God is the reading found in the vast majority of Hebrew texts and is the reading of every Jewish translation I am aware of, including the 1917 Jewish Publication Society, the 1936 Hebrew Publishing Company, the modern Complete Jewish Bible, the Hebrew Names Version and the Judaica Press Tanach.


It is also the reading found in the King James Bible, Latin Vulgate 425, Wycliffe 1395, Coverdale 1535, Bishops’ Bible 1568, the Geneva Bible 1599, the Revised Version 1881, American Standard Version 1901, Darby, Youngs, the Spanish Reina Valera, French Martin 1744, Louis Segond 1910, Ostervald 1996, Italian Diodati and the Rivudeta 1927, the NKJV, Modern Greek, and the NASB 1972-1995,


However he NIV has chosen a different text and reads: “He sought God during the days of Zechariah, who instructed him in THE FEAR of God. As long as he sought the LORD, God gave him success.”

Then the NIV footnotes that the reading “fear” comes from ‘Many Hebrew manuscripts, Septuagint and Syriac; other Hebrew manuscripts vision ‘ This variant reading was first adopted by the liberal RSV in 1954 and now it is found in the NRSV, ESV, NIV, NEB and the Holman Standard Version. The LXX does read "fear of God" rather than "visions of God", but Lamsa's translation of the Syriac has "worship of God" rather than either 'fear' or 'visions', but with the modern versionists' Bible Agnostic mentality, I guess we can never be sure what God inspired in His precious words of truth and grace.

NET version- Daniel Wallace’s fickle NET version has an incredible 4 footnotes in this single verse and yet for the word in question he has nothing. He seems to have made up his own text which more or less leans towards the NIV reading. The NET says: “He followed God during the lifetime of Zechariah, who TAUGHT HIM HOW TO HONOR GOD. As long as he followed the Lord, God caused him to succeed.”

Both readings obviously cannot be what God originally inspired. Who wants you to be unsure about what God has said? As the Rolling Stones say: “Won’t you guess my name?”

Another example of this is found in 2 Chronicles 31:16. Here we read: "Beside their genealogy of males, from THREE YEARS OLD and upward, even unto every one that entereth into the house of the LORD, his daily portion for their service in their charges according to their courses."

THREE YEARS OLD is the reading found in all Hebrew texts as well as the following Bible translations: Wycliffe 1395, Bishops' Bible 1568, Coverdale, Geneva Bible 1599, King James Bible, Jewish translation 1917, NKJV 1982, Complete Jewish Bible 1998, Revised Version 1881, American Standard Version 1901, NIV, TNIV, RSV 1950, NRSV 1989, ESV 2001, Holman Standard 2003, and even in Daniel Wallace's NET version.

However the NASB tells us instead: "without regard to their genealogical enrollment, to the males from THIRTY YEARS OLD and upward - everyone who entered the house of the LORD for his daily obligations - ." Then some, but not all, NASB's tell us in the marginal note that the Hebrew reads THREE years old, instead of thirty. Not even the Greek LXX nor the Syriac versions read "thirty" as does the NASB, but say "three years old". The only other version I have found so far that also "makes up" this reading of "thirty years old" is the mess called The Message. So why do the NASB "scholars" virtually all by themselves change the Hebrew texts?

John Gill - "Their office was not only to give to the priests, but to those of their males in their genealogy, who were three years old and upwards; for under that age, according to Kimchi, they were not fit to come into the temple; nor have they knowledge to keep what is put into their hands; nor fit to handle offerings, lest they should defile them; but at that age they might be taught how to hold them, and be used to it; but as for females, he says, they were not admitted at any age."

Jamieson, Fausset and Brown - "With the exception of children under three years of age--an exception made probably from their being considered too young to receive solid food--lists were kept of the number and age of every male; of priests according to their fathers' house, and Levites from twenty years."

Ezra 8:5 and 8:10 NASB 95, NIV, ESV, RSV, Holman all add to the Hebrew Scriptures.

In Ezra chapter eight we read of the genealogy of those who went up with Ezra from Babylon to Jerusalem to rebuild the temple. In Ezra 8:5 we read: "Of the sons of Shechaniah; the son of Jahaziel, and with him three hundred males."

This is the reading of the Hebrew text, as well as the Geneva Bible, the RV, ASV, Young's, Darby, Douay, the Spanish Reina Valera, and the Jewish translations of 1917, 1936, and 1998. It WAS also the reading of the NASB in their 1972 and 1977 editions.

However, the new NASB of 1995 now reads as do the RSV, ESV, NIV, the newer Catholic versions like the Jerusalem Bible and the St. Joseph NAB, and the Holman Standard. These versions say: "Of the descendants OF ZATTU, Shechaniah son of Jahaziel.." Then in a footnote the NIV, ESV and Holman tell us that the name ZATTU comes from SOME LXX copies, but that the Hebrew does not have this added name.

The same thing occurs in Ezra 8:10. Here the King James Bible as well as the Hebrew text and Jewish translations (1917 -1998), and the RV, ASV, Young's, Darby, Douay of 1950, and Spanish versions all read: "And of the sons of Shelomith; the son of Josiphiah, and with him 160 males." This WAS the reading too of the NASB of 1972 and 1977.

But once again, the 1995 NASB has changed its Old Testament text and it now reads along with the RSV, ESV, NIV, the newer Catholic versions, and the Holman Standard: "Of the descendants of BANI, Shelomith son of Josiphiah..." Then in the NIV, ESV and Holman footnote (the NASB doesn't tell us that they changed the text), we read that the name of BANI comes from SOME LXX copies (they do not all read the same), but that the Hebrew does not have the name BANI in the text.

Ezra 10:6 and 10:16

In Ezra 10:6 we read: "Then Ezra rose up from before the house of God, and went into the chamber of Johanan the son of Eliashib; AND WHEN HE WAS COME THITHER, he did eat no bread, nor drink water: for he mourned because of the transgression of them that had been carried away."

"And when he was come thither" is the reading of the Hebrew translations of the Jewish Publication Society 1917, the Hebrew Publishing Company version 1936, the Revised Version 1881, the American Standard Version of 1901, Young's, the Spanish Reina Valera, Green's MKJV 1998 and the NKJV. Even the LXX reads this way.

The NASB is a bit different with: "Although he went there, he did not eat bread..." The NIV is basically the same with: "While he was there, he did not eat bread..."

However the Holman Standard, the RSV and the ESV say: "Then Ezra went from the house of God, walked to the chamber of Jehohanan son of Eliashib, WHERE HE SPENT THE NIGHT. He did not eat food or drink water.."

Then in a footnote the Holman tells us "where he spent the night" comes from the Syriac but that the Hebrew reads as does the KJB and many others. Actually, this is a false footnote. Lamsa's translation of the Syriac says "And HE SAT THERE" instead of "where he spent the night".

The RSV and the ESV also say "where he spent the night", but they say nothing about any Syriac reading. Instead the ESV footnotes this reading in this manner: "PROBABLE reading"; Hebrew - he went there". In other words, the Holman and the RSV, ESV just made this reading up out of thin air.

Daniel Wallace's NET bible says: "Then Ezra got up from before the temple of God and went to the room of Jehohanan son of Eliashib. WHILE HE STAYED THERE (footnote # 10) there, he did not eat food, nor did he drink water, for he was in mourning over the infidelity of the exiles."

Then in his footnote he tells us: "The translation reads wayyalen (“and he stayed”) rather than the reading wayyelek (“and he went”) of the MT. Cf. the LXX."

So Daniel Wallace has made up his own reading, and it doesn't even agree with ANY of the other versions. And why does he refer us to the LXX? Who knows? The LXX reads the same way here as do the Hebrew texts and the King James Bible.

A similar example of confusion exists in Ezra 10:16. There we read: "And Ezra the priest, with certain chief of the fathers, after the house of their fathers, and all of them by their names, WERE SEPARATED, and sat down in the first day of the tenth month to examine the matter."

"And Ezra the priest, with certain chief of the fathers....WERE SEPARATED" is the reading of the KJB, the Jewish translations of 1917, 1936, the RV, ASV, NKJV, Young's, the Spanish Reina Valera, Green's MKJV, and even the Greek Septuagint.

However this time the RSV, NRSV, ESV and Holman all say: "Ezra the priest SELECTED MEN who were family leaders..." Then in a footnote the RSV, ESV and Holman all tell us this reading comes from the Syiac. The NASB, NIV and the TNIV also read "Ezra the priest SELECTED MEN" but they don't tell us that this reading is not what the Hebrew texts say; they just change the text with no footnotes telling us they have done so.

Daniel Wallace's NET bible says: "10:16 So the exiles proceeded accordingly. Ezra the priest SEPARATED OUT (ft. # 19) by name men who were leaders in their family groups."

Then Mr. Wallace tells us in his footnote: "The translation reads the Hiphil singular wayyabdel lo (“separated for himself”) rather than the Niphal plural wayyibbadelu (“were separated”) of the MT."

Again, Doktor Wallace has simply changed the text, (and he even put in his own Hebrew rendering!), but admitted that the Masorretic text reads as does the King James Bible.

Even those versions that tell us the reading "selected men" comes from the Syriac are not being totally honest. Lamsa's translation of the Syriac actually says: "Ezra the priest selected TEN men". So, in other words, the NASB, NIV, ESV and Holman have all rejected the Hebrew text and substituted instead PART OF the Syriac reading. Nice scholarly work, huh? These are the guys who are writing your modern bible versions.

Nehemiah 11:8 - Here the KJB as well as the Hebrew texts read: “AND AFTER HIM GABBAI, SALLAI nine hundred twenty and eight.” So too do Wycliffe, Bishops’s bible, the Geneva Bible, the RV, ASV, NASB, RSV, NIV, NKJV, Rotherham’s Emphasized bible, Green, Darby, Youngs, and the Jewish translations.


However the ESV omits the names here, and changes “and after him” to “brothers” saying: “and his brothers, men of valor, 928.” They not only changed “and after him” to “HIS BROTHERS” but they omit the two names. Then the ESV footnotes: “Compare Septuagint; Hebrew And after him Gabbai, Sallai, 928”. Well, I compared the LXX and it reads “and after him Gebe, Seli nine hundred and twenty eight.” (kai opisoo autou Gebe, Seli)


The previous RSV read exactly like the KJB - “And after him Gabba'i, Salla'i, nine hundred and twenty-eight.”, then the NRSV changed it a bit with - “And his brothers F36 Gabbai, Sallai: nine hundred twenty-eight.” with a footnote that “brothers” comes from “F36 Gk Mss: Heb [And after him]” They are lying. The LXX I have says “and after him” not “his brothers”, AND it has two names listed. So much for the ESV and its accuracy.

Nehemiah 11:14 - Here the KJB as well as the Hebrew texts read: "And THEIR BRETHREN, mighty men of valour, an hundred twenty and eight..." Agreeing with the reading of THEIR BRETHREN are Coverdale, Bishops' bible, the Geneva Bible, the 1917 Jewish translation, the RV, ASV, RSV, NRSV, ESV, NKJV, NASB, Young's and Lamsa's translation of the Syriac. However the NIV, TNIV, Message and Daniel Wallace & company's NET version read: "And HIS ASSOCIATES". Then the NIV footnotes that HIS comes from "Most Septuagint manuscripts" but that the Hebrew reads "their". It should also be pointed out that "associates" is not the same thing as "brethren". The copy of the LXX I have reads "adelphoi autou" or "HIS brothers". Wallace's NET version also reads like the NIV- HIS COLLEAGUES" - and then he footnotes - "


The translation reads with the LXX “and his brothers” rather than the MT reading “and their brothers”.


In the Book of Job the NIV changes Job 7:20, and in 9:19 both the NASB, NIV change "me" to "him". Here the NIV footnote says to see the LXX, though the Hebrew says "ME", but even the LXX doesn't read "him" - I checked it out. The Hebrew translations as well as the RV, ASV read "who shall set ME a time to plead?" as does the KJB.

Job 14:3 -"And doth thou open thine eyes upon such an one, and bringeth ME into judgment with thee?" So read the Hebrew texts as well as the 1917, 1936 Jewish translations, the Judaica Press Tanach, the Geneva Bible, Bishops's bible, Coverdale, the RV, ASV, NRSV, ESV, NKJV, and the Holman Standard.

But the NASB, NIV, and RSV change the "me" to "him". The NASB does not tell us where they got this reading from, but the NIV footnotes tell us it comes from the alleged LXX, the Vulgate and Syriac, but that the Hebrew says ME. Even Daniel Wallace, of the goofy NET version fame which often rejects the Hebrew readings, says in his footnotes: "The text clearly has “me” as the accusative; but many wish to emend it to say “him”."

Now the new TNIV has come down the pike and it has even changed from the old NIV. The TNIV now reads: "will you bring THEM..." Then in a footnote it tells us this reading supposedly comes from the LXX, Syriac and the Vulgate, but the Hebrew reads ME. By the way, the TNIV footnote is false. The LXX and Syriac do not read "them" but "him".

Job 15:23 "He wandereth abroad FOR BREAD, SAYING WHERE IS IT? he knoweth that the day of darkness is ready at his hand."

This verse reads the same in the Jewish translations, based of course on the Hebrew texts. It is also the reading of the RV, ASV, NASB, NKJV, RSV, NRSV, and ESV. The NIV, however, goes totally off the wall here and doesn't even tell you in their footnotes how they came up with their unique reading. The NIV says: "He wanders about - FOOD FOR VULTURES." You have to do a bit of research, but this corrupt reading comes from the Greek Septuagint; not the Hebrew texts.


Job 22:17 Again the NIV, RSV, and ESV depart from the Hebrew texts. The KJB, as well as the NKJV, NASB say: "Which said unto God, Depart from us: and what can the Almighty do for THEM." The NKJV footnote says the Hebrew reads "them", but the Syriac and LXX read "us", and so read the NIV, ESV saying: "what can the Almighty do for US?"

Job 27:18 Here we have another blunder found in the NASB. All Hebrew texts as well as the RV, ASV, NKJV, 1917, 1936 Jewish translations, Young's, Geneva, and the ESV (2001 English Standard Version) read: "He buildeth his house as a MOTH, and as a booth that the keeper maketh."

The word is clearly "moth" (# 6211 gahsh) and is found 7 times in the Hebrew texts, as in Job 4:19 "are crushed before the moth", and 13:28 "as a garment that is moth eaten". However the RSV and the NASB read: "He has built his house like A SPIDER'S WEB." If you look in the NASB concordance you will see there is no number by their entry of "spider's web". That is because there is no such word in the Hebrew texts. The NASB does not tell you when they depart from the Hebrew texts, but the RSV has a footnote telling us to compare the Greek Septuagint and the Syriac, but the Hebrew reads "moth".

Well, the LXX and the Syriac are interesting. The Greek LXX reads: "And his house is gone like moths, and like a spider's web", while Lamsa's translation of the Syriac has: "The wicked has built his house upon a spider's web."

It is also of interest that the RSV has "spider's web", while the NRSV says: "he builds his house LIKE A NEST", and then the ESV, which is a revision of the previous two, goes back to "moth". The NIV adds a word not found in any text but it still is similar to the KJB reading with: "The house he builds is like a moth's cocoon."

Psalm 18:13 "The LORD also thundered in the heavens, and the Highest gave his voice; HAIL STONES AND COALS OF FIRE." Bible versions that include the phrase "hail stones and coals of fire" are the Wycliffe, Coverdale, Bishops’, the Geneva Bible, Youngs, Darby, the Jewish translations of 1917, 1936, the 2004 Judaica Press Tanach, the Complete Jewish Bible, the RV, ASV, RSV 1954, the NASB 1995, the 2001 ESV, the Spanish Reina Valera 1602 - 1995, Lamsa’s 1936 translation of the Syriac Peshitta, the Modern Greek (not to be confused with the so called LXX) the KJV 21st Century version 1994, and the NKJV 1982.'

However the NIV, NRSV 1989, NET version, and the 2003 Holman Standard omit these words, and then in a footnote tell us that some Hebrew mss. and the LXX omit these words, but they are found in most Hebrew manuscripts. Well, they are also found in the ancient Syriac versions too.

As for the NIV, what is of interest is that the NIV Spanish edition, called Nueva Versión Internacional 1999, put out by the same people who give us the NIV English version (International Bible Society) has included the Hebrew words left out by the NIV English version. It reads: “En el cielo, ENTRE GRANIZOS Y CARBONES ENCENDIDOS, se oyó el trueno del Señor, resonó la voz del Altísimo.” Likewise the NIV French edition, called La Bible du Semeur 1999 (IBS) also includes the Hebrew words omitted by the American NIV.

Notice also that the previous 1954 RSV included the words; then the NRSV 1989 omitted them, but then the revision of the revision of the revision “scientifically” put them back in again! This typifies what modern scholars call the “art and science of textual criticism” - mere guesswork and fickle change for change’s sake.

Though I certainly do not trust the Dead Sea Scrolls, since they have been found to contain conflicting texts of radically different readings, plus an additional “15 apocryphal Psalms or similar compostions distributed among four manuscripts”, yet the DSS copy of Psalm 18 does include these Hebrew words that the NIV omits.

Psalm 20:9 "Save, LORD: LET THE KING HEAR US when we call." This verse reads the same in the NASB, NKJV, RV, ASV, Darby, Spanish, 1936 and 1917 Hebrew-English and other translations. The king can easily be seen as the anointed, or the Christ, who is the true king, whom God will hear, referred to in verse 6. Christ makes intercession for us, and God hears Him. Or it could be referring to the earthly king, who if he is a godly and compassionate ruler, will attend to the needs of the people when they come before him with their needs. In any case the Hebrew clearly reads this way. The NIV, and the ESV however, without a footnote, have this reading. "O LORD, SAVE THE KING! Answer us when we call!" It is of interest to note that the RSV also reads as does the NIV, but the RSV has a footnote telling us that the Greek LXX reads this way. I looked it up and it's true. But the RSV also states that the Hebrew reads as does the KJB, and also the others like the NASB and NKJV. So again, the NIV editors have forsaken the Hebrew masoretic text and followed the Greek LXX.

Likewise the NIV has used the LXX, Syriac or Vulgate to alter Psalms 19:4; 22:31; 42:5; 44:4; 49:11; 109:10; 119:37; 145:5; but all of these verses read the same in the NASB and NKJV.

In Psalm 22:31 along with the Hebrew texts we read: "THEY SHALL COME, and shall declare his righteousness...". So read the RV, ASV, NASB, NKJV, ESV, NET, and Holman. However the previous RSV, NRSV and now the NIV and TNIV omit the words "they shall come". The NRSV informs us in their footnote to consult the LXX for this omission, but also tells us that the Hebrew reads: "They shall come". Of course the NRSV also changes the Hebrew text in verse 29 where it says: "and none can keep alive his own soul" (RV, ASV, NASB, NIV, ESV, NKJV and Holman) for "AND I SHALL LIVE FOR HIM". The NRSV then tells us to consult the LXX, Vulgate, and Syriac for this completely different reading, but that the Hebrew reads as the KJB and others, including the revised ESV, now have it. So, at present, the NIV is the only newest version that continues to omit the words "THEY SHALL COME" from the Hebrew texts and follows the omission of the LXX here.

Psalm 60:4 "Thou hast given a banner to them that fear thee, THAT IT MAY BE DISPLAYED BECAUSE OF THE TRUTH. Selah."

So read the Hebrew texts as well as the following Bible translations: Coverdale 1535, Bishops' Bible 1568, the Geneva Bible 1599, KJB , Youngs', Darby, the Revised Version, American Standard Version, NASB, NKJV, the Jewish translations of 1917, 1936, and the Complete Jewish Bible.

The Spanish Reina Valera 1995 is the same as the KJB with "Has dado a los que te temen bandera que alcen por causa de la verdad. Selah".

However, the NIV reads: - "But for those who fear you, you have raised a banner TO BE UNFURLED AGAINST THE BOW." The RSV, NRSV, ESV read much the same with: "Thou hast set up a banner for those who fear thee, TO RALLY TO IT FROM THE BOW.", but then in the RSV, NRSV footnotes tell us this totally different reading comes from "the Greek LXX, the Syriac and Jerome, but the Hebrew says 'Truth'."

Well, not even their footnote is totally accurate. The copy of the Greek LXX I have says "given a TOKEN...that they might FLEE FROM THE BOW", while Lamsa's translation of the Syriac says the opposite with: "Thou hast wrought a miracle to them that reverence thee, so that they need NOT FLEE FROM THE BOW."

The Holman Standard basically keeps with this NIV perversion and says: "You have given a signal flag to those who fear You, so that THEY CAN FLEE BEFORE THE ARCHERS." These new bogus bibles are significant in that TRUTH has disappeared, and God's people are now fleeing before the enemy!!

In Psalms 145:13 the NIV adds 15 words to the standard Hebrew text. These additional words are not found in the RV, ASV, NKJV, NASB, Hebrew Names Version or any Jewish translation. The NIV adds "The LORD is faithful to all his promises and loving toward all he has made."

Here are two examples from the Psalms that illustrate what the NIV is doing.

In Psalm 72:5 we read: "THEY SHALL FEAR THEE as long as the sun and moon endure, throughout all generations."

This is the reading of the KJB, Revised Version, ASV, NASB, NKJV, the Jewish translations of 1917, 1936, the Spanish, Young's, Darby's, Geneva, and the 2001 revision of the RSV called the English Standard Version.

The NIV, however reads: "HE WILL ENDURE as long as the sun..." This is also the reading of the liberal RSV and NRSV, though the new ESV has again gone back to the KJB and Hebrew reading.. But the footnotes found in the NIV, RSV, and NRSV all tell us that the reading of HE WILL ENDURE comes from the Greek Septuagint, but that the Hebrew reads "they shall fear thee".

So why did the NIV change the clear Hebrew reading? Doesn't the Hebrew make sense? Didn't God inspire the words of the Old Testament in Hebrew and not in Greek, Syriac or Latin?

The second example is found in Psalm 73:7. There the Psalmist is speaking of the foolish and wicked who prosper in this world. He says of them: "THEIR EYES STAND OUT WITH FATNESS: they have more than heart could wish."

This is the reading of not only the KJV, NKJV, NASB, RV, ASV, but also of the RSV, NRSV and the ESV versions. However the NIV says: "FROM THEIR CALLOUS HEARTS COMES INIQUITY". Then in a footnote the NIV tells us this reading comes from the SYRIAC, but that the Hebrew says "their eyes bulge with fat."

Again, why would the "good, godly, evangelical scholars" who worked on the NIV change the text, if the Hebrew clearly makes sense and there is no doubt about what it says?

Also of note is the totally changed meaning of verse 9 where we read: "THEY SET THEIR MOUTH AGAINST THE HEAVENS, and their tongue walketh through the earth."

These wicked people speak against God, blaspheme heavenly truths and talk only of earthly interests. "They set their mouth against the heavens" is the reading or meaning of even the NASB, RSV, ASV, NRSV, RV, ESV, and NKJV. Yet the NIV actually says: "Their mouths LAY CLAIM TO HEAVEN, and their tongues take possession of the earth."

Psalm 105:21-22 "He made him lord of his house, and ruler of all his substance: TO BIND his princes at his pleasure; and to teach his senators wisdom."

"to bind his princes" -So read the Hebrew texts, as well as the RV, ASV, the Jewish translations of 1917, 1936, the Geneva Bible, NKJV, ESV, Darby, Green's MKJV, Holman Standard, and Young's. The NASB says: "to imprison", and even Wallace's NET version reads: "giving him authority to IMPRISON his officials." Then he footnotes: "Heb “to BIND his officials."

However the NIV joins the liberal RSV, NRSV and says: "TO INSTRUCT his princes as he pleased." This time the NIV doesn't tell us in their footnotes why they changed the text, but the RSV, NRSV and ESV tell us that "to instruct" comes from the so called LXX, the Syriac, and Jerome, but that the Hebrew reads "to bind". Again notice that the 2001 ESV has gone back to the Hebrew reading instead of the previous RSV rejection of the Hebrew text.

There is a distinct pattern easily seen if one studies the different bible versions. The King James Old Testament is based on the Hebrew Masoretic text and the New Testament on the traditional Greek text. When the RV and ASV came out, they significantly changed the Greek text of the New Testament but kept the Masoretic text intact. Then the liberal RSV appeared with the same corrupted Greek text of the apostates Westcott and Hort, but also with many of the same changes in the Hebrew text that now appear in the NASB and the ever worsening NIV.

118:13 "THOU HAST THRUST SORE AT ME that I might fall: but the LORD helped me."

The Hebrew reading here is clearly THOU, or "you" as some modern versions have it. THOU is the reading of the Geneva Bible, Bishops' bible, the KJB, RV, ASV, Young's, the Jewish translations of 1917, 1936, and Hebrew Names Bible. The "thou hast thrust sore at me" is addressed to each of the many enemies who compassed Israel about like bees.

The NKJV, NASB, and Holman Standard read: "YOU pushed me violently..."

However the NIV, RSV and ESV all reject the Hebrew reading and follow the LXX and Syriac. The NIV reads: "I WAS PUSHED BACK..." Though the ESV also follows the LXX and Syriac, yet in their footnote the ESV informs us: "Hebrew You (that is, the enemy) pushed me hard."

The NIV departs from the Hebrew Scriptures well over 100 times and follows the Syriac, LXX, Vulgate or some other source. They usually tell you this in their footnotes, but not this time. However if you consult either the RSV or the ESV, they tell you in a footnote that the Hebrew reads "You" but the reading of "I" comes from the LXX and the Syriac.

Psalm 145:5 - “I WILL speak of the glorious honour of thy majesty, and of thy wondrous works.“

The Hebrew Masoretic text clearly says “I” will speak, or it can be translated as “I” will mediitate, and so read all the Jewish translations like the JPS 1917 version, the Complete Jewish Bible and the Hebrew Names Bible, as well as Coverdale, Bishops’ bible, the Geneva Bible, the RV, ASV, NASB, RSV, NRSV, ESV, NKJV and Holman Standard.

However the NIV rejects the Hebrew reading of “I” and says: “THEY WILL SPEAK of the glorious splendor of your majesty, AND I WILL MEDITATE on your wonderful works.” Thus adding another subject and verb and changing the “I” will speak to “THEY will speak”. Then they tell us in their footnotes that these changes come from the Dead Sea Scrolls and the Syriac. However I have a copy of Lamsa’s translation of the Syriac and it says: “I will speak” just like the King James Bible and the Hebrew texts.

Then in Psalm 145:12 the Hebrew and the King James Bible read: “To make known to the sons of men HIS mighty acts, and the glorious majesty of HIS kingdom.

So read the Hebrew texts as well as Bishops’ Bible, the Geneva Bible, the Jewish translations of JPS 1917, Hebrew Names Bible, the Reviised Version, American Standard Version, NKJV, Youngs and Darby.

However the NASB, NIV change the Hebrew texts, which read HIS mighty acts and HIS kingdom, to THY mighty acts and THY kindom (NASB 1977) or YOUR mighty acts and YOUR kindom (NIV). Other versions that reject these two Hebrew readings of “HIS” and substitute either THY or YOUR are the RSV, NRSV, ESV, and the Holman Standard. Most of these versions, like the NASB, just footnote that the literal Hebrew is HIS. This time neither the NIV nor the NASB tell us why they made this change in the text, but we learn it from the NRSV. The NRSV footnotes that the literal Hebrew reads HIS, but the LXX and the Syriac read YOUR. That is where the NASB, RSV, ESV and NIV got it from.

NIV - “so that all men may know of YOUR mighty acts and the glorious splendor of YOUR kingdom.”


Will Kinney


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