Matthew 1:6
From Textus Receptus
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[[Image:Matthew 1.6.JPG|300px|thumb|right|[[Matthew 1:6]] in the [[1611 AD|1611]] [[King James Version]]]] | [[Image:Matthew 1.6.JPG|300px|thumb|right|[[Matthew 1:6]] in the [[1611 AD|1611]] [[King James Version]]]] | ||
| - | The editors of the 1769 Oxford edition wanted to regularize the use of italics by italicizing all words of the translation which did not have a counterpart in the text of Stephens 1550. That is why there are more italics in the 1769 than in the 1611 - because they used the 1550 and not the | + | The editors of the 1769 Oxford edition wanted to regularize the use of italics by italicizing all words of the translation which did not have a counterpart in the text of Stephens 1550. That is why there are more italics in the 1769 than in the 1611 - because they used the 1550 and not the 1598. Why they didn't follow the 1598 of Beza, who knows. If you go through Matt 1 you will find that there are 4 extra Italics. For example the 1:6 |
And Jesse begat David the king; and David the king begat | And Jesse begat David the king; and David the king begat | ||
Revision as of 20:27, 25 January 2013
- Matthew 1:6 And Jesse begat David the king; and David the king begat Solomon of her that had been the wife of Urias;
(King James Version, Pure Cambridge Edition)
- Matthew 1:6 and Jesse fathered David the king, and David the king fathered Solomon of her who had been the wife[3] of Uriah.
- 1611 And Jesse begate Dauid the king, and Dauid the king begat Solomon of her that had bin the wife of Urias. King James Version
- And Jesse begat David the king; and David the king begat Solomon of her that had been the wife of Urias; PCE
Italics
The editors of the 1769 Oxford edition wanted to regularize the use of italics by italicizing all words of the translation which did not have a counterpart in the text of Stephens 1550. That is why there are more italics in the 1769 than in the 1611 - because they used the 1550 and not the 1598. Why they didn't follow the 1598 of Beza, who knows. If you go through Matt 1 you will find that there are 4 extra Italics. For example the 1:6
And Jesse begat David the king; and David the king begat Solomon of her (that had been the wife) of Urias;
Where in the original 1611 it has only italics on "that had been" not including "the wife"..
The KJV of 1611 had LESS italics - so the issue strengthens the KJV argument and does not weaken it. As far as italics goes there are very good reasons for their inclusion, and many times they make the verse much more understandable.
