2 Peter 1:1

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==Interlinear==
==Interlinear==
==Commentary==
==Commentary==
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====Will Kinney====
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====[[The Granville Sharp Rule]]====
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The KJV has been accused of being misleading by bible critics such as [[Dan Wallace]] and [[James White]]. The claim that [[The Granville Sharp Rule]] reveals the KJV to be in error here.
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Here we read “To them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ.
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This verse is simply placing emphasis upon the fact that Jesus will return as the "great God" for all mankind but also "our savior" for the Christians. To those unfamiliar with [[The Granville Sharp Rule]], let me simply demonstrate with a few examples the error of the claims of modern scholars to save you wasting your time reading their nonsense.
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Again they say the verse, as it stands in the KJB, does not clearly show the deity of Jesus Christ. The NKJV, NIV and NASB read: “through the righteousness of OUR God and Savior, Jesus Christ.
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[[Galatians 1:4]] reads: Who gave himself for our sins, that he might deliver us from this present evil world, according to the will '''of God and our Father'''."
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[[Thessalonians 1:3]] we read, "Remembering without ceasing your work of faith, and labour of love, and patience of hope in our Lord Jesus Christ, in the sight '''of God and our Father'''."
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First, it needs to be pointed out that there are several textual differences in the Greek of verses one and two. One of the “oldest and best” manuscripts called Sinaiticus reads “righteousness of the Lord” or kurios instead of righteousness of God. But the NASB and NIV didn’t follow this, but rather the majority reading of "God".
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In these passages it is clearly demonsratated that God and Father are the same Person. The nouns God and Father are separated to explain two characteristics; that God who is all powerful, Almighty, is also our Father, emphasizing the care of a Father.  
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In the next verse we read: "Grace and peace be multiplied unto you through the knowledge OF GOD AND OF JESUS OUR LORD."
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The Greek phrase σωτῆρος ἡμῶν (sotayros eemoon) means "our savior" in [[Titus 1:3]], [[Titus 1:4|4]]; [[Titus 2:10|2:10]], [[Titus 2:13|2:13]]; [[Titus 3:4|3:4]], [[Titus 3:6|6]] and is consistent throughout the KJV.  
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Here several texts omit "of God and of Jesus" - The Expositor's Greek Testament does this. Other texts omit just "of God", and Sinaiticus adds the word CHRIST and so says: "of God and of Jesus CHRIST our Lord". Other Greek manuscripts read "Jesus our Saviour" instead of "Jesus our Lord", and others still reverse the word order and add Christ and end up with "of our Lord Jesus Christ" instead of "of Jesus our Lord", while a few others say "of OUR God" instead of "of God". You can verify all this information by looking carefully at the Nestle-Aland Greek New Testament 4th edition. There is thus a wide variety of different readings found in these first two verses of 2 Peter.  
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[[James White]] in his zeal to seem pro Trinitarian, swallows most of [[Dan Wallace]]'s teachings, and is happy to change certain KJV readings to appeal to an illiterate or unregenerate mindset. Any Christian who reads the bible faithfully will accept the doctrine of the Trinity, and because certain people are illiterate or twist the Scripture to suit their own doctrine, that does not warrant the bible to be changed. The KJV clearly speaks of two aspects of the one Christ. The only issue is with [[James White]]'s understanding of English.
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Secondly, in the texts followed by the KJB, Beza’s of 1589 and 1598, as well as Elzevirs, there is an additional “our” found before Jesus Christ. Regardless of these textual differences, the verse in question can either serve as a proof text for Christ’s deity or not, depending on how you choose to read it.
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James White says:
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:The construction here is *identical* to the construction found in 1:1, with only one word being different. Here are the passages as they are transliterated into English:
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:1:1: tou theou hemon kai sotaros Iesou Christou
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Elziever Greek text 1624 equals the reading found in Stephanus
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:1:11: tou kuriou hemon kai sotaros Iesou Christou
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:Notice the exact one-to-one correspondence between these passages! The only difference is the substitution of "kuriou" for "theou". No one would question the translation of "our Lord and Savior, Jesus Christ" at 1:11; why question the translation of "our God and Savior, Jesus Christ" at 1:1? Consistency in translation demands that we not allow our personal prejudices to interfere with our rendering of God's Word.<sup>[1]</sup>
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http://www.aramaicpeshitta.com/GreekNTtools/TRGreekScrivener/TRSc_2pet.htm
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Here we have a clear example of the flawed scholarship of [[James White]]. Beza's [[1598 AD|1598]] Greek clearly has an additional '''ἡμῶν''' before Jesus Christ. One could excuse James if he was quoting the text of Scrivener and didn't check Beza, as there are about 191 differences, but he failed totally and quoted the text of Stephanus. James White erroneously thinks that his choice of Greek text was that underlying the KJV. So James has written books on the topic of King James Onlyism, but cannot tell which Greek text underlies the KJV? James proudly held up an original of the Stephanus' [[1550 AD|1550]] Editio Regia (the third edition of the Greek New Testament of Robert Estienne) at a debate against Jack Mormon in 2011, but seems to hold books up in the air, without knowing much about their contents or translations.  
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* [[1550 AD|1550]] τοῦ θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος '''----''' Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (Stephanus)
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* [[1598 AD|1598]] τοῦ θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος '''ἡμῶν''' Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (Beza)
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* [[1880 AD|1880]]  τοῦ Θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος '''ἡμῶν''' Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ· (Scrivener)
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2 Πετερ 1:1 en dikaiosunh tou yeou hmwn kai swthrov hmwn ihsou cristou = Both these texts have the literal “righteousness of the OUR God and OUR Saviour Jesus Christ.
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Even a basic cursory look at English versions actually based upon the [[1550 AD|1550]] text, would show these differences, or at least generate some curiosity in James as to why there was a difference.
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Some Bible translations actually read this way.  Among these are the Worsley Version of 1770 “the righteousness of OUR God and of OUR Saviour Jesus Christ”, Green’s KJV lll of 1993, the French Sainte Bible of 1759 and La Bible du Semeur of 1999 - “notre Dieu et notre Sauveur”.  Likewise the Weymouth translation of 1912 has “righteousness of OUR God and of OUR Savior Jesus Christ.”  Etheridge’s 1849 translation of the Syriac has “righteousness of OUR Lord and OUR Redeemer Jeshu Meshiha.
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* [[1535 AD|1535]] of oure God, and Sauioure Iesus Christ. (Coverdale Bible) - Stephanus based
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* [[1560 AD|1560]] of our God and Sauiour Iesus Christ: (Geneva Bible) - Stephanus based
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* [[1611 AD|1611]] of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ: (King James Version) - Beza based
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Bible Translations that agree with the King James Bible reading:
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One can debate the inclusion of ἡμῶν and the reasons why Beza included it in his editions, but one cannot escape the White's lack of knowledge on this topic.
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The  Italian Diodati of 1649 reads like the KJB with “righteousness of God and OUR Saviour, Jesus Christ.” - “giustizia dell’Iddio e Salvator NOSTRO, Gesù Cristo.”  So too do Webster’s 1833 translation, the KJV 21st Century version 1994 and the Third Millennium Bible of 1998, the Revised English Version of 2010, The Resurrection Life New Testament 2005, the Holy Scriptures Jubilee Bible 2000, the Evidence Bible 2003, the Heritage Bible 2003, and the Urim-Thummin Version of 2001 by Dallas James.
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Liberal Scholar [[Bruce Metzger]] said concerning the addition of ἡμῶν:
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:Accompanied by annotations and his own Latin version, as well as Jerome's Latin Vulgate, these editions (of Beza's text from 1565, 1582, 1589, and 1598) contained a certain amount of textual information drawn from several Greek manuscripts which Beza had collated himself, as well as the Greek manuscripts collated by Henry Stephanus, son of Robert Stephanus. <sup>[1]</sup>
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The reading as it stands in the KJB “the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ” can easily be seen as stating that He is both God and our Saviour; but the difference is this - Jesus Christ is God but He is not every body's Saviour.  He is OUR Saviour and 2 Peter is written to born again, blood bought Christians. Compare other verses with similar wording. In Isaiah 44:6, 24 we are told “Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, AND his redeemer the LORD of hosts: I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God...Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, AND he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things...” Even though there is the word “and” in between the two nouns, we know there is only one person who is being referred to - God.
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==References==
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* 1. Metzger, The Text Of The New Testament, 105.
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The same thing is found in 1 Thessalonians 3:11 “Now God himself AND our Father, and our Lord Jesus Christ direct our way unto you.”; Galatians 1:4 “according to the will of God AND our Father.” The “and” is not implying another person, but is bringing out another aspect of the same one. He is both God and our Father.
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So too, in 2 Peter the “God and our Saviour Jesus Christ” can be seen as showing another aspect of the same divine Person, just as 2 Peter 1:11 “kingdom of our Lord AND Saviour Jesus Christ.”
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Even the reading of the NKJV, NIV and NASB could be looked upon as describing two distinct persons; it all depends on how one reads it.
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“Righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ”, can be compared to statements like “our Mom and Dad won’t let us go to the party” or “our boss and manager will be at the meeting”.
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In Scripture we have “ye are our glory and joy” 1 Thessalonians 2:20, and Acts 15:25 “our beloved Barnabas and Paul”. Both Barnabas and Paul were beloved but they obviously were two different people. You see, if you wish to see a declaration of Christ’s deity in this verse, it is there. Likewise, it can be explained away by those who do not wish to see it in either rendering. The Jehovah Witness New World Translation reads much the same way as the NKJV, NIV, NASB - "by the righteousness of OUR God and [the] Savior Jesus Christ" (NWT) and yet they manage to explain away the full deity of our Saviour Jesus Christ.
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Dr. Thomas Holland has written a very good article refuting James White's groundless criticism of the King James Bible, and these three verses. He addresses Titus 2:13 and the others about two-thirds down in his article here: http://www.purewords.org/kjb1611/html/lesson12.htm
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I hope this has been of some help to those who believe that we have all of God’s inspired, pure words today, and that they are found in the King James Holy Bible.
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==External Links==
==External Links==
* [http://av1611.com/kjbp/faq/holland_2pe1_1.html 2 Peter 1:1 - "of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ"]
* [http://av1611.com/kjbp/faq/holland_2pe1_1.html 2 Peter 1:1 - "of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ"]

Revision as of 12:07, 15 January 2016

Template:Verses in 2 Peter 1

  • ΠΕΤΡΟΥ Β΄ 1:1 ΣΥΜΕΩʹΝ Πέτρος δοῦλος καὶ ἀπόστολος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ, τοῖς ἰσότιμον ἡμῖν λαχοῦσι πίστιν ἐν δικαιοσύνῃ τοῦ θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ•

(Textus Receptus, Novum Testamentum, Theodore Beza, 5th major edition. Geneva. 1598)

  • 2 Peter 1:1 Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ:

(King James Version, Pure Cambridge Edition 1900)

  • 2 Peter 1:1 Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to those who have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ:

(Progressive King James Version)

Matthew 1:1 in Beza's 1598 Greek New Testament
Matthew 1:1 in Beza's 1598 Greek New Testament

Contents

Interlinear

Commentary

The Granville Sharp Rule

The KJV has been accused of being misleading by bible critics such as Dan Wallace and James White. The claim that The Granville Sharp Rule reveals the KJV to be in error here.

This verse is simply placing emphasis upon the fact that Jesus will return as the "great God" for all mankind but also "our savior" for the Christians. To those unfamiliar with The Granville Sharp Rule, let me simply demonstrate with a few examples the error of the claims of modern scholars to save you wasting your time reading their nonsense.

Galatians 1:4 reads: Who gave himself for our sins, that he might deliver us from this present evil world, according to the will of God and our Father." Thessalonians 1:3 we read, "Remembering without ceasing your work of faith, and labour of love, and patience of hope in our Lord Jesus Christ, in the sight of God and our Father."

In these passages it is clearly demonsratated that God and Father are the same Person. The nouns God and Father are separated to explain two characteristics; that God who is all powerful, Almighty, is also our Father, emphasizing the care of a Father.

The Greek phrase σωτῆρος ἡμῶν (sotayros eemoon) means "our savior" in Titus 1:3, 4; 2:10, 2:13; 3:4, 6 and is consistent throughout the KJV.

James White in his zeal to seem pro Trinitarian, swallows most of Dan Wallace's teachings, and is happy to change certain KJV readings to appeal to an illiterate or unregenerate mindset. Any Christian who reads the bible faithfully will accept the doctrine of the Trinity, and because certain people are illiterate or twist the Scripture to suit their own doctrine, that does not warrant the bible to be changed. The KJV clearly speaks of two aspects of the one Christ. The only issue is with James White's understanding of English.

James White says:

The construction here is *identical* to the construction found in 1:1, with only one word being different. Here are the passages as they are transliterated into English:
1:1: tou theou hemon kai sotaros Iesou Christou
1:11: tou kuriou hemon kai sotaros Iesou Christou
Notice the exact one-to-one correspondence between these passages! The only difference is the substitution of "kuriou" for "theou". No one would question the translation of "our Lord and Savior, Jesus Christ" at 1:11; why question the translation of "our God and Savior, Jesus Christ" at 1:1? Consistency in translation demands that we not allow our personal prejudices to interfere with our rendering of God's Word.[1]

Here we have a clear example of the flawed scholarship of James White. Beza's 1598 Greek clearly has an additional ἡμῶν before Jesus Christ. One could excuse James if he was quoting the text of Scrivener and didn't check Beza, as there are about 191 differences, but he failed totally and quoted the text of Stephanus. James White erroneously thinks that his choice of Greek text was that underlying the KJV. So James has written books on the topic of King James Onlyism, but cannot tell which Greek text underlies the KJV? James proudly held up an original of the Stephanus' 1550 Editio Regia (the third edition of the Greek New Testament of Robert Estienne) at a debate against Jack Mormon in 2011, but seems to hold books up in the air, without knowing much about their contents or translations.

  • 1550 τοῦ θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος ---- Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (Stephanus)
  • 1598 τοῦ θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (Beza)
  • 1880 τοῦ Θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ· (Scrivener)

Even a basic cursory look at English versions actually based upon the 1550 text, would show these differences, or at least generate some curiosity in James as to why there was a difference.

  • 1535 of oure God, and Sauioure Iesus Christ. (Coverdale Bible) - Stephanus based
  • 1560 of our God and Sauiour Iesus Christ: (Geneva Bible) - Stephanus based
  • 1611 of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ: (King James Version) - Beza based

One can debate the inclusion of ἡμῶν and the reasons why Beza included it in his editions, but one cannot escape the White's lack of knowledge on this topic.

Liberal Scholar Bruce Metzger said concerning the addition of ἡμῶν:

Accompanied by annotations and his own Latin version, as well as Jerome's Latin Vulgate, these editions (of Beza's text from 1565, 1582, 1589, and 1598) contained a certain amount of textual information drawn from several Greek manuscripts which Beza had collated himself, as well as the Greek manuscripts collated by Henry Stephanus, son of Robert Stephanus. [1]

References

  • 1. Metzger, The Text Of The New Testament, 105.

External Links

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