2 Timothy 3:16

From Textus Receptus

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'''2 Timothy 3:16''' All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
'''2 Timothy 3:16''' All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
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Preservation and Inspiration are merely two sides of the same coin. Paul said to Timothy that he had known the "holy scriptures" from when he was "a child". Were these scriptures Timothy knew the so called "inspired originals"? No they would have been faithful COPIES of them, but not the temple manuscripts. The next verse explains to Timothy that THOSE scriptures are - "given by inspiration of God"
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Preservation and Inspiration are merely two sides of the same coin. Paul said to Timothy that he had known the "holy scriptures" from when he was "a child". Were these scriptures Timothy knew the so called inspired originals? No they would have been faithful copies of them and not the original temple manuscripts. The next verse explains to Timothy that those copies of the scriptures are given by inspiration of God. So what Paul is saying to us here is that faithful copies are inspired, thus why the doctrine of inspiration and preservation go hand in hand.
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So what Paul is saying to us here is that faithful COPIES are inspired. Thus why the doctrine of inspiration and preservation go hand in hand.
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Some modern versions change the entire meaning of this verse. The RSV, GN, NASV have an alternative wording in the margin which reads "Every scripture inspired by God" or similar, thus casting doubt on the basic doctrine of inspiration of all scripture. Basically that means they think some scriptures are given by inspiration of God.
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The DR, RV and NEB have similar wordings in the text but destroy the essence ~ "Every scripture has its use." Are all the Holy Scriptures inspired, or just some parts? And if not, who knows which parts are inspired and which are not?
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KJV ~ All scripture is given by inspiration of God..
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others ~ Every scripture inspired by God..
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I guess is they think the only some parts are inspired, and this type of thinking justifies what they do in modern versions by omitting and changing God's word. The King James Version from the 1598 Textus Receptus is correct because it is the most natural reading, as the phrase does not have a verb and therefore both adjectives should be dealt with similarly. A similar Greek structure is found in 1 Tim 4:4 which support it also.

Revision as of 00:24, 10 November 2012

2 Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

Preservation and Inspiration are merely two sides of the same coin. Paul said to Timothy that he had known the "holy scriptures" from when he was "a child". Were these scriptures Timothy knew the so called inspired originals? No they would have been faithful copies of them and not the original temple manuscripts. The next verse explains to Timothy that those copies of the scriptures are given by inspiration of God. So what Paul is saying to us here is that faithful copies are inspired, thus why the doctrine of inspiration and preservation go hand in hand.

Some modern versions change the entire meaning of this verse. The RSV, GN, NASV have an alternative wording in the margin which reads "Every scripture inspired by God" or similar, thus casting doubt on the basic doctrine of inspiration of all scripture. Basically that means they think some scriptures are given by inspiration of God.

The DR, RV and NEB have similar wordings in the text but destroy the essence ~ "Every scripture has its use." Are all the Holy Scriptures inspired, or just some parts? And if not, who knows which parts are inspired and which are not?

KJV ~ All scripture is given by inspiration of God.. others ~ Every scripture inspired by God..

I guess is they think the only some parts are inspired, and this type of thinking justifies what they do in modern versions by omitting and changing God's word. The King James Version from the 1598 Textus Receptus is correct because it is the most natural reading, as the phrase does not have a verb and therefore both adjectives should be dealt with similarly. A similar Greek structure is found in 1 Tim 4:4 which support it also.

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