Definite Article - Revision history

Nick: Redirecting to Definite article

2017-11-12T10:35:31Z

← Older revision		Revision as of 10:35, 12 November 2017
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	Definite ~~articles are not used the same way in Greek as they are in English. No Bible translation translates the Greek definite articles~~		#REDIRECT [[Definite article]]

	~~==The Definite Article in Greek==~~
	~~Dana and Mantey's "A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament", p. 150-151. says:~~
	~~:“It is important to bear in mind that we cannot determine the English translation by the presence or absence of the article in Greek. Sometimes we should use the~~ article ~~in the English translation when it is not used in the Greek, and sometimes the idiomatic force of the Greek article may best be rendered by an anarthrous noun in English.”~~

	~~==KJV Today==~~
	~~In the article by [[KJV Today~~]] ~~"[http://www.kjvtoday.com/home/does-the-kjv-fail-to-translate-the-definite-article-properly-in-the-greek Does the KJV fail to translate the Greek article properly]?" it says:~~
	:It is often alleged that the KJV erroneously translates the Greek definite article (ο, η, τό) as an English indefinite article (a, an). An example is in Matthew 5:1: “he went up into a mountain.” The Greek says, “ανεβη εις το ορος,” which has the definite article “το” preceding “mountain (ορος).” The KJV is not in error. The definite article in Greek can function as a categorical article having a qualitative force (Daniel Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics at 228), in which case the English indefinite article could be a valid translation. As with Greek, the English definite article (the) can also be used to determine the category and nothing more. For example, we might say “On sunny days, people go to the beach.” Despite the definite article, no specific beach is implied. Thus we are actually saying, “On sunny days, people go to a beach.” “The beach” is a categorical determination, not a determination of a specific beach. The definite article’s purpose is only to determine the specific category, and not to determine the specific thing in the category. Likewise, when Matthew 5:1 says, “ανεβη εις το ορος,” “το” can be translated with the English indefinite article, signifying that the category of the location was a mountain as opposed to something else (e.g. town, beach). The NIV, which attempts to convey the sense of the passage, agrees with the KJV and reads, “he went up on a mountainside.”

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Nick: /* KJV Today */

2017-11-12T10:34:29Z

KJV Today

← Older revision		Revision as of 10:34, 12 November 2017
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	==KJV Today==		==KJV Today==
	In the article by [[KJV Today]] "[http://www.kjvtoday.com/home/does-the-kjv-fail-to-translate-the-definite-article-properly-in-the-greek Does the KJV fail to translate the Greek article properly]?" it says:		In the article by [[KJV Today]] "[http://www.kjvtoday.com/home/does-the-kjv-fail-to-translate-the-definite-article-properly-in-the-greek Does the KJV fail to translate the Greek article properly]?" it says:
	:It is often alleged that the KJV erroneously translates the Greek definite article (ο, η, τό) as an English indefinite article (a, an). An example is in Matthew 5:1: “he went up into a mountain.” The Greek says, “ανεβη εις το ορος,” which has the definite article “το” preceding “mountain (ορος).”		:It is often alleged that the KJV erroneously translates the Greek definite article (ο, η, τό) as an English indefinite article (a, an). An example is in Matthew 5:1: “he went up into a mountain.” The Greek says, “ανεβη εις το ορος,” which has the definite article “το” preceding “mountain (ορος).” The KJV is not in error. The definite article in Greek can function as a categorical article having a qualitative force (Daniel Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics at 228), in which case the English indefinite article could be a valid translation. As with Greek, the English definite article (the) can also be used to determine the category and nothing more. For example, we might say “On sunny days, people go to the beach.” Despite the definite article, no specific beach is implied. Thus we are actually saying, “On sunny days, people go to a beach.” “The beach” is a categorical determination, not a determination of a specific beach. The definite article’s purpose is only to determine the specific category, and not to determine the specific thing in the category. Likewise, when Matthew 5:1 says, “ανεβη εις το ορος,” “το” can be translated with the English indefinite article, signifying that the category of the location was a mountain as opposed to something else (e.g. town, beach). The NIV, which attempts to convey the sense of the passage, agrees with the KJV and reads, “he went up on a mountainside.”
	:The KJV is not in error. The definite article in Greek can function as a categorical article having a qualitative force (Daniel Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics at 228), in which case the English indefinite article ~~would~~ be a valid translation.
	As with Greek, the English definite article (the) can also be used to determine the category and nothing more. For example, we might say “On sunny days, people go to the beach.”
	:Despite the definite article ~~- “the beach” -~~ no specific beach is implied. Thus we are actually saying, “On sunny days, people go to a beach.” “The beach” is a categorical determination, not a determination of a specific beach.
	:The definite article’s purpose is only to determine the specific category, and not to determine the specific thing in the category.
	:Likewise, when Matthew 5:1 says, “ανεβη εις το ορος,” “το” can be translated with the English indefinite article, signifying that the category of the location was a mountain as opposed to something else (e.g. town, beach). The NIV, which attempts to convey the sense of the passage, agrees with the KJV and reads, “he went up on a mountainside.”

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Nick: /* KJV Today */

2017-11-12T10:33:34Z

KJV Today

← Older revision		Revision as of 10:33, 12 November 2017
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	:Despite the definite article - “the beach” - no specific beach is implied. Thus we are actually saying, “On sunny days, people go to a beach.” “The beach” is a categorical determination, not a determination of a specific beach.		:Despite the definite article - “the beach” - no specific beach is implied. Thus we are actually saying, “On sunny days, people go to a beach.” “The beach” is a categorical determination, not a determination of a specific beach.
	:The definite article’s purpose is only to determine the specific category, and not to determine the specific thing in the category.		:The definite article’s purpose is only to determine the specific category, and not to determine the specific thing in the category.
	Likewise, when Matthew 5:1 says, “ανεβη εις το ορος,” “το” can be translated with the English indefinite article, signifying that the category of the location was a mountain as opposed to something else (e.g. town, beach). The NIV, which attempts to convey the sense of the passage, agrees with the KJV and reads, “he went up on a mountainside.”		:Likewise, when Matthew 5:1 says, “ανεβη εις το ορος,” “το” can be translated with the English indefinite article, signifying that the category of the location was a mountain as opposed to something else (e.g. town, beach). The NIV, which attempts to convey the sense of the passage, agrees with the KJV and reads, “he went up on a mountainside.”

	{{Donate}}		{{Donate}}

Nick at 10:33, 12 November 2017

2017-11-12T10:33:17Z

← Older revision	Revision as of 10:33, 12 November 2017
Line 1:	Line 1:
		Definite articles are not used the same way in Greek as they are in English. No Bible translation translates the Greek definite articles

		==The Definite Article in Greek==
		Dana and Mantey's "A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament", p. 150-151. says:
		:“It is important to bear in mind that we cannot determine the English translation by the presence or absence of the article in Greek. Sometimes we should use the article in the English translation when it is not used in the Greek, and sometimes the idiomatic force of the Greek article may best be rendered by an anarthrous noun in English.”

		==KJV Today==
		In the article by [[KJV Today]] "[http://www.kjvtoday.com/home/does-the-kjv-fail-to-translate-the-definite-article-properly-in-the-greek Does the KJV fail to translate the Greek article properly]?" it says:
		:It is often alleged that the KJV erroneously translates the Greek definite article (ο, η, τό) as an English indefinite article (a, an). An example is in Matthew 5:1: “he went up into a mountain.” The Greek says, “ανεβη εις το ορος,” which has the definite article “το” preceding “mountain (ορος).”
		:The KJV is not in error. The definite article in Greek can function as a categorical article having a qualitative force (Daniel Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics at 228), in which case the English indefinite article would be a valid translation.
		As with Greek, the English definite article (the) can also be used to determine the category and nothing more. For example, we might say “On sunny days, people go to the beach.”
		:Despite the definite article - “the beach” - no specific beach is implied. Thus we are actually saying, “On sunny days, people go to a beach.” “The beach” is a categorical determination, not a determination of a specific beach.
		:The definite article’s purpose is only to determine the specific category, and not to determine the specific thing in the category.
		Likewise, when Matthew 5:1 says, “ανεβη εις το ορος,” “το” can be translated with the English indefinite article, signifying that the category of the location was a mountain as opposed to something else (e.g. town, beach). The NIV, which attempts to convey the sense of the passage, agrees with the KJV and reads, “he went up on a mountainside.”

		{{Donate}}

Nick: Removing all content from page

2016-03-19T11:42:58Z

Removing all content from page

← Older revision		Revision as of 11:42, 19 March 2016
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	~~==Does the KJV fail to translate the Greek article properly?==~~
	~~The following is from the website [http://www.kjvtoday.com/home/does-the-kjv-fail-to-translate-the-definite-article-properly-in-the-greek kjvtoday.com]:~~
	:It is often alleged that the KJV erroneously translates the Greek definite article (ο, η, τό) as an English indefinite article (a, an). An example is in Matthew 5:1: “he went up into a mountain.” The Greek says, “ανεβη εις το ορος,” which has the definite article “το” preceding “mountain (ορος).” The KJV is not in error. The definite article in Greek can function as a categorical article having a qualitative force (Daniel Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics at 228), in which case the English indefinite article could be a valid translation. As with Greek, the English definite article (the) can also be used to determine the category and nothing more. For example, we might say “On sunny days, people go to the beach.” Despite the definite article, no specific beach is implied. Thus we are actually saying, “On sunny days, people go to a beach.” “The beach” is a categorical determination, not a determination of a specific beach. The definite article’s purpose is only to determine the specific category, and not to determine the specific thing in the category. Likewise, when Matthew 5:1 says, “ανεβη εις το ορος,” “το” can be translated with the English indefinite article, signifying that the category of the location was a mountain as opposed to something else (e.g. town, beach). The NIV, which attempts to convey the sense of the passage, agrees with the KJV and reads, “he went up on a mountainside.”

Nick: New page: ==Does the KJV fail to translate the Greek article properly?== The following is from the website [http://www.kjvtoday.com/home/does-the-kjv-fail-to-translate-the-definite-article-properly-...

2016-03-19T11:38:45Z

New page: ==Does the KJV fail to translate the Greek article properly?== The following is from the website [http://www.kjvtoday.com/home/does-the-kjv-fail-to-translate-the-definite-article-properly-...

New page

==Does the KJV fail to translate the Greek article properly?==
The following is from the website [http://www.kjvtoday.com/home/does-the-kjv-fail-to-translate-the-definite-article-properly-in-the-greek kjvtoday.com]:
:It is often alleged that the KJV erroneously translates the Greek definite article (ο, η, τό) as an English indefinite article (a, an). An example is in Matthew 5:1: “he went up into a mountain.” The Greek says, “ανεβη εις το ορος,” which has the definite article “το” preceding “mountain (ορος).” The KJV is not in error. The definite article in Greek can function as a categorical article having a qualitative force (Daniel Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics at 228), in which case the English indefinite article could be a valid translation. As with Greek, the English definite article (the) can also be used to determine the category and nothing more. For example, we might say “On sunny days, people go to the beach.” Despite the definite article, no specific beach is implied. Thus we are actually saying, “On sunny days, people go to a beach.” “The beach” is a categorical determination, not a determination of a specific beach. The definite article’s purpose is only to determine the specific category, and not to determine the specific thing in the category. Likewise, when Matthew 5:1 says, “ανεβη εις το ορος,” “το” can be translated with the English indefinite article, signifying that the category of the location was a mountain as opposed to something else (e.g. town, beach). The NIV, which attempts to convey the sense of the passage, agrees with the KJV and reads, “he went up on a mountainside.”